For some mysterious reason, I find myself penetrating
a little bit deeper into the far part of Germany, the erstwhile German
Democratic Republic, every time I go there. This time I took the train to
Dresden, past Eisenach, Erfurt and Weimar which I already visited the latest
times around, but got off before the end station, at the city of Leipzig. It is here that
Napoleon was defeated in the Nations Battle exactly 200 years ago.
On 2-3 December 2013, I participated in the
interdisciplinary workshop on Indo-European, “Talking Neolithic”, which brought
together geneticists, archaeologists and linguists. It was surprisingly
well-organized and the papers were original (sometimes revolutionary) and at a
high level. Socializing was also fun, both meeting new people and finally
getting to see some famous people I only knew from their publications, like
James Mallory, whose dictionary of Indo-European I often use though he turns
out to be an archaeologist. I had hoped to meet Joanna Nichols, who had at
first been announced, if only to hear out her erstwhile Bactrian homeland
thesis, but it seems health problems kept her back. Nonetheless, I had a very
good time.
I haven’t taken notes and will not do a
full report, but a few papers have made such an impression that I have to
mention them here. It goes without saying that the responsibility for any
misrepresentation of the speakers’ ideas, no matter how involuntary, will be
mine. My apologies to the speakers who are left undiscussed here.
State
of the art
Co-organizer Guus Kroonen, a Dutch linguist
teaching in Copenhagen, introduced the workshop by summarizing the state of the
art. Ever new data or deeper knowledge about existing data confirm that the
Indo-Europeans in Europe borrowed a lot of their agricultural and botanical
terminology from lost indigenous languages. This contrasts with the terminology
from pastoralism and wheeled locomotion, which is fully Proto-Indo-European.
Therefore, many scholars have suspected that the Indo-Europeans in their steppe
homeland knew no agriculture at all. As pastoralists, they established a
hierarchical relation with the native European agriculturalists, so that for
reasons of prestige, the common folk abandoned their mother tongue and adopted
the Indo-European language of the elite, transforming it along the way into the
daughter languages known from history. However,
Kroonen’s own work finds that the Indo-Europeans did know at least some
agriculture, though they adopted new cultivars and techniques from the Old
Europeans.
Nonetheless, he also mentioned the
consequential fact that east of the Dniepr in Ukraine, and in the vast stretch
of land where the home of the Proto-Indo-Europeans is usually situated, no
trace of agriculture has been found prior to 2000 BCE. I deduce that this area
may fit the putative homeland of PIE pastoralists, who did not know any
agriculture, but cannot possibly fit a PIE population of whom it has been
established that it knew at least some agriculture. Whether this is really the
case, this workshop was meant to verify.
The next speaker, James Mallory from
Belfast, gave a historical overview of how the agricultural question had been
treated in two centuries of IE studies. Very entertaining, and what I have
taken away from it, is that around 1900, the homeland was often situated in
Bactria as the northern rim of the original wheat cultivation zone, stretching
from the Euphrates to the Indus valleys. This makes sense: Bactria, like
Northwestern India and Mesopotamia, was an area propitious to agriculture and
demographic growth. If in such an area a famine or a conflict forces a part of
the population to leave, it may be a small percentage in its homeland, but a
mighty big group in the endless steppelands, capable of imposing its language.
The unparalleled success of the Indo-Europeans in spreading or imposing their
language is far better explained by postulating a thickly-populated homeland
rather than the bare and backward steppes.
He confirmed the surprising lack of names
for cultivars common to Indo-Iranian and the European branches. While the
currently most favoured explanation is that different groups of pastoralists
from Russia separately entered Europe and India, it was thought then that the
absence of agricultural terms in Indo-Iranian could be explained by a division
of labour: the European-to-be tribes lived in the Oxus valley proper tilling
the fields and took their agricultural terms with them from there, while the
eastern-oriented Indo-Iranians trekked through the Hindu Kush and Pamir hill
slopes with their herds.
My
own paper
The choice to introduce my own paper at
this point, though in reality it was scheduled only on the second day, is not
inspired by a lack of modesty. I simply need to clarify where I stand on this
matter, so that the reader can see how I had to interpret the other papers.
Incidentally, organizational and technical
gave me only 25 minutes to read my paper, so I hurried through it and had no
time left for questions, which I had kind of counted on. While I had a fairly
original message on the homeland question, I found that during the subsequent
lunch and over drinks, only a few people had any questions about it, let alone
objections. This was mostly not a matter of politely hiding their scepticism
(as Germans are wont to do, but the many Dutch and Anglophone participants are
more forthright), but of a profound disinterest in the matter. Either they have
interiorized the SW-Russian homeland theory during their schooling and simply
cannot imagine Indo-European history otherwise (to the extent that quite a few
have not even heard of an Indian
challenge), and consequently are deaf to or immune against any alternative; or
they have vaguely heard that this is a wild conspiracy theory promoted only by
Hindu nationalists, which can safely be ignored.
In my paper, I argued that agricultural
terminology in Germanic are usually taken to confirm the established picture.
Words corresponding with Indo-Iranian terms, hence fully Indo-European, have an
agricultural meaning in Germanic, but not in Indo-Iranian (Dutch tarwe/”wheat” but Sanskrit durva, “grass”, apparently the original
meaning; or harvest but kṛpāṇi, “sword”, both from a root
meaning “cut” but only in Europe specialized to an agricultural setting). The
usual reading of this is that in their Russian homeland, the
Proto-Indo-Europeans were pastoralists without agriculture, that the
Indo-Iranians took this level of culture along with them to Afghanistan and
India, while the European branches showed a quick immersion in an agricultural
society, attested either by the specialization of Indo-European terms to
agricultural meanings, or by borrowing agricultural terms from the Old European
natives.
I then revisited a paper from 1979 by Colin
Masica, as well as his 1991 standard handbook of Indo-Aryan
linguistics, to evaluate his list of Indo-Aryan agricultural, botanical and
pastoralist terms. Of these, over 9 % are deduced from Dravidian, mostly
because corresponding Dravidian words are attested, sometimes just because they
look Dravidian; likewise, over 5% of Munda. Some 24% are from Persian or
otherwise foreign, and need not detain us here. Various Indo-Aryan or even
Indo-Iranian groups amounts to some 44%, and the rest is unexplained. In fact,
quite a few of the other categories are not securely explained either. Now,
many of these words look perfectly Indo-Aryan, either because Hindi-speaking
mouths have successfully integrated them, or because they simply are. The
criterion that a word can only be Indo-European if it occurs in at least two
branches, is conventionally assumed but in fact arbitrary. An Indian homeland
would almost necessitate that numerous terms for Indian plants were forgotten
along with the plants themselves by all non-Indian branches as people left
India and never encountered, say, a banyan tree again.
According to Michael Witzel, some 4% of
Rg-Vedic terminology is non-Indo-European. That would make the Rg-Veda the
purest Indo-European text by far. And even that 4 % is a generous estimate, for
the words he lists as borrowed have a disputed origin and some may just be
Indo-European. Witzel lists bīja,
“seed”, which exists also in Iranian, as borrowed from the purely hypothetical
“Bactria-Margiana Archaeological Complex” language, but Masica opines that it
is from Dravidian. As for parṣa,
“sheaf”, I learned from another speaker that it is one of the few agricultural
terms attested both in India and in Europe (Greek), viz. as part of the name of
grain goddess Demeter’s daughter Persephone < perso-gwhen- = Skt. parṣa-han-,
“sheaf-beater”, i.e. thresher. In Germanic, the number of words deemed loans
has been halved in recent decades by identifying cognates in other branches,
e.g. swim turns out to have cognates
in Baltic and Celtic, though meaning “move” or “hunt”; it is not impossible
that such cognates will yet be found for Sankrit too.
But not that there is anything against
loans into Sanskrit or Indo-Aryan. Munda was the language of a rice-cultivating
society around the mouth of the Ganga, Dravidian that of the Gujarat part of
the Harappan area, dimly bordering on the Sankrit speech area (separated by the
Rajasthan desert), which moreover was to assimilate many Munda- and Dravidian
areas into the expanding Indo-Aryan community. Moreover, South-Indian kings
invited Brahmin communities to settle and give Vedic prestige to their
dynasties, upon which they integrated Dravidian words into later Sanskrit, e.g.
mīṇa, “fish”, or kāṇa, one-eyed. This expansion is attested by well-known historical
developments and doesn’t require, let alone prove, an Indo-Aryan invasion from
abroad. As for the European branches, they borrowed words but often also gave a
new agricultural meaning to general IE words, e.g. Skt. ajra, “empty land” but Latin ager,
“field”. But this doesn’t mean that Sanskrit had no agricultural terms, e.g. sītā, “furrow” (from PIE seh, “sow”), kṣetra, “field”.
Masica considers his findings as
incompatible with the Indian tradition of an Indian homeland. We think we have
shown otherwise. Of the other arguments, he knew a few but more have been added
since: (1) linguistic paleontology: agreed here not to prove a cold homeland or
any homeland at all; (2) common developments with Greek, and generally the
geographical distribution of the isoglosses, is better explained by an Indian
“extreme” homeland than by radiation from the Russian centre; (3) Finno-Ugric
has hundreds of Iranian loanwords but imparted no words to Iranian or
Indo-Aryan (the seeming exception of Guṅgu,
“moon”, can either be a coincidental homonymy, date from an earlier Nostratic
period, or was somehow a loan from Indo-Iranian), which is typical for a colonial
situation, with Scythian Iranian imparting words and also borrowing some but
not communicating them back to the homeland; (4) Mitannic can be shown to
belong to the youngest layer of the Ṛg-Veda, so allowing for the language to
emigrate and to become a dead substrate of Hurrian (and the similar case of
Kassite), the Ṛg-Veda must have been complete by 1800 BC or so; 5) geographical
distribution has the homeland typically in a far corner (Amerind superfamily,
Bantu/Austronesian family, Turkic group, Arabic/Russian language), not in the
centre (IE: Volga), which also is not the zone of greatest diversity, on the
contrary; (6) Vedic
literature contains a few astronomical passages datable because of the
precession (ca. 1° in 71 years), e.g. Kauṣītaki Brāhmaṇa 2300 BC instead
of ca. 1000 BC, Vedāṅga Jyotiṣa 1300 BC instead of ca. 400 BC,
incompatible with an invasion scenario ca. 1500 BC; (7)
kentum substrate in Bangani, India,
e.g. dokru instead of expected daśru, “tear”; (8) Vedic and Puranic
literature refers several times to emigrations, never to early immigrations,
and the Northwest was not venerated as an area of origin; (9) the agricultural
terminology proves, contra Masica, to be compatible with an Indian homeland.
Skepticism
Hans-Jürgen Bartelt, teaching in Hamburg, analyzed
the way the label “interdisciplinary” is misused by scholars, so that linguists
hide behind findings supposedly done by archaeologists or vice-versa. Genetics
is another mute science with a tremendous promise but hitherto of limited or
largely false use in linguistic reconstruction.
Ranko Matasović from Zagreb, Croatia, asked
if there are loans in Indo-European from North-Causasian, and after surveying
some candidates, he concluded that there weren’t any. If the Proto-Indo-Europeans
had been their northern neighbours in their Russian homeland, they should
reasonably have taken some loans with them to their respective historical
habitats. I conclude that, like with Uralic, the homeland had no point of
contact with North Causasian, and therefore was not in the peri-Caspian steppe
zone.
Paul Heggarty from Cambridge analysed
linguistic paleontology to extinction. The basic supposition of linguistic
paleontology is that from the vocabulary, you can deduce all about a society
and its environment. But words can undergo semantic shifts, so that a general
word at an unidentifiable moment gets specialized towards a specific
technological meaning. As for glottochronology, the calculation of the time at
which a certain rate of linguistic change has taken place, it is an outrageous
failure. This is shown by the rate of change calculated for languages known
from their beginnings onwards, e.g. Portuguese and Italian are calculated to
have separated less than 1000 years ago. This was a plea against the old and
hazy methods and in favour of modern precision. Applying Bayesian phylogenetics,
on the basis of linguistic facts furnished by the linguists themselves, gets
better results. Between the Russian and the Anatolian homelands (an Indian
homeland is not taken seriously by the researchers, or not even known), it
judges strongly in favour of the Anatolian one. Nevertheless, most people
present thought, on other linguistic grounds, that Anatolia was definitely not
the homeland, among other reasons because the Hittite language spoken there has
all the marks of a result of foreign conquest, with a very large substratal
element both in the language and in the mythology. Note also that with the new
fancy methods, the split between Indian and Iranian is estimated at 2800 BC, a
more realistic date than the 1600 BC or so required by the Aryan Invasion
Theory.
Robert Mailhammer from Sydney discussed six
words for wheeled locomotion, which are as consistently present in all
Indo-European branches as the words for relatives or the numbers. We give a
Germanic example plus the Sanskrit: wagon/vahati
(cart, conduct); rad/ratha (wheel,
cart); wheel/cakra; ahs/akṣa (axle); ar/īṣā (pole, rudder); yoke/yuga.
It seems that Indo-European had a full vocabulary for wheeled locomotion
because this technology had just been developed in the Proto-Indo-European
community. Indeed, I deduce that wheeled technology was part of the reason for
the successful expansion of Indo-European. This technology gave them as edge
over others, and by the time their neighbours had acquired it, the
Indo-European language family was already spread from India to Ireland. Colin
Renfrew may have been wrong with his Anatolian homeland theory, but he has the
merit of explaining the Indo-European expansion: the shift to agriculture gave
the population concerned a great demographic edge, and as the people spread,
their language spread with them. If we deem Renfrew wrong, we have at least to
think of another reason for this success.
Question time after Mailhammer’s lecture
became a debate with Heggarty, who, for my taste, went a bit too far in his doubt
that a vocabulary can teach us anything at all. Thus, the existence of words
for “wheel”, “yoke” and “axle” in Proto-Indo-European does not strictly prove
that the Indo-Europeans had wheeled
technology, e.g. the words for “wheel” may simply have meant “turn, revolve”, a
type of motion that also exists in the natural world. But in that case, it is
unlikely that all branches of later Indo-European would all have adapted the same
terms for natural phenomena to name the freshly invented wheel technology. Like
most linguists, I believe that in this case, the evidence of the vocabulary is
so strong and so consistent as to allow the inference that the cart technology
was alive already in the Proto-Indo-European stage.
Joseph Salmons from Wisconsin applied the
suppositions of the Indo-Europeanists to the present-day language situation in
America. While American English does have words of Amerindian origin (moose,
squirrel, skunk), the southern dialects do not have any words specifically from
the local Cherokee language, nor the Wisconsin dialects from the local
Algonquian (only the Algonquians themselves intersperse their English with some
of these). Dialectal American English does have many local formations unknown
to any outsiders, even in this audience consisting mostly of linguists. Some of
these are variations on English expressions, other are onomatopoeic or of
unknown origin. If we already don’t understand the finesses of these local variations
on the language in which the workshop was conducted, what are our chances in a
language situation thousands of years before its first writing? At any rate,
the test of linguistic mechanisms posited for PIE (Grimm’s law, Venner’s law, etc.) is
whether they could explain linguistic processes today.
I do not remember who it was that cited a
couple of leading linguists as affirming that the homeland must have been a
mountainous area with thunderstorms and heat, since Proto-Indo-European had
words for “mountain”, “thunder” and “hot”. Well, what could be the homeland
where people would never experience thunderstorms or feel hot? Yes, Antarctica
might fit the bill (though it inconveniently has a few mountains), and we might
all be found willing to scrap Antarctica from the list of possible homelands of
Indo-European. For me, the point of this example, or of some names in Mallory’s
historical survey, is that this academic discipline has thrown up quite a few
people in positions of authority who in seriousness held theories that could
not stand the test of common sense.
Isoglosses
Hrach Martirosyan, an Armenian working in
Leiden, showed that Armenian shared many isoglosses (common linguistic
innovations, starting with common new vocabulary) with Greek. These had had to
have shared most of the way from the homeland, wherever it lay, to their
historical habitats in Armenia and the southeast corner of the Black sea coast,
c.q. in the southern Balkans and the Aegean Sea. This pleads against a Pontic
(steppe) homeland, as Greek would probably have to go west through the Balkans
while Armenian would have to go south through the Caucasus. By contrast, in an
Indian homeland scenario, Greek and Armenian (as well as the extinct and
little-attested Phrygian) would follow the same route, thus fitting these
languages’ isoglosses.
From Adam Hyllested, who spoke about the
roots for “carrot”, I retained that unlike all other branches, Slavic had not
been searched for substrate words because, as the language of the homeland, it
had had no non-Indo-European substrate language. In fact, another explanation
is possible: Slavic was preceded by other Indo-European languages who cleared
the way and assimilated the substrate populations. Unlike even its Baltic twin,
it was not in touch with non-Indo-European. It may have adopted substrate
words, but through other Indo-European language, so by definition in common
with other branches and hence classed as Indo-European so far. Note also that
even in the Russian homeland theory, it was not the language of the homeland:
united Slavic had Slovakia or so as its habitat, Central Europe and not the
steppes, which for more than a thousand years were the realm of the
Iranian-speaking Scythians.
Lucien van Beek from Leiden showed that
while names of grains are either pan-Indo-European or at least common to the
European branches, the names for five species of pulses are undeniably borrowed
from a substrate layer. Moreover, it turns out that they are cognate in the
Greek and Albanian branches, and often also in the other European branches. The
borrowing from this Old Balkanic language group sometimes produced doubles,
e.g. orobos and erebinthos, “pea” c.q. “chick pea”, borrowed at different times or
places from different variants of the native language. The strengthening (as
opposed to the denying) prefix a- and
the suffix inth- are instances of
features regularly appearing in Greek that must stem from this Balkanic
language.
Two etymologies he stated drew my attention.
Odysseus and his men are at one point locked up by a one-eyed giant, the
Cyclops. Folk-etymologically, this means “(he with the) circular eye”, but the
speaker quoted Paul Thieme as saying that this Ky-klops came from pku-klop-,
“cattle (Latin pecus, German Vieh) thief (cfr. kleptomania, ‘compulsive stealing’)”, the image of violent and
lawless raiders that the Old European farmers must have had of the pastoralist
intruders. The other is Persephone, Perso-gwhen-,
“she who beats the sheafs”, which makes a hole in Witzel’s theory that Skt. parṣa, “sheaf”, is a BMAC loan into
Indo-Iranian.
Rosemarie Lühr from Berlin was an
old-school professor who did not bring a power-point but read her whole lecture
quite literally from her paper. Nonetheless, her message put the final nail in
the coffin of the “Northwest block” theory. This language, also known as
“Belgian”, was a hypothetical Indo-European language spoken in the low
countries. Like Phrygian, Anatolian and Tocharian, it died out, i.c. around the
time of the Roman conquest. However, it left traces in Germanic, mostly the
hard-to-explain words starting with initial p-,
such as pool and plough. She argued that within Germanic itself, mechanisms are
available to explain these words without having to bring in the uneconomical
hypothesis of an extra language. Other linguists agreed but thought that, as
far as they were concerned, the theory had already been abandoned.
When
the Neolithic people talked
Peter Schrijver, who teaches Celtic
languages in Utrecht, ended the workshop with a revolutionary paper, exploring
the possibility that Sumerian and Hattic, and perhaps even Minoan (linear-A),
were dialects of the same language. When you compare classical Sumerian, which
was studied for many centuries after its disappearance as a living language ca.
2000 BC, you will find little that resembles Hattic. But when you go to the
oldest Sumerian available, many resemblances start to appear. The differences
that remain, on the other hand, prove a great time-depth: the original language
must have broken up already several thousands of years earlier. This chronology
makes it entirely possible that theirs was the language of the Neolithic
Revolution, expanding from Syria to southern Mesopotamia (Sumerian), Anatolia
(Hattic) and Crete (Minoan), before Semitic and Indo-European took over.
Most participants at the workshop agreed
that Colin Renfrew had been wrong with his proposal that Indo-European was
spread along with agriculture from an Anatolian homeland. The two developments,
agriculturization and Indo-Europeanization, had been separated by at the very least
a thousand years, and the Indo-Europeans found an agriculture-based economy
ready-made when they entered Europe. But the earlier spread of Hattic-related
languages along with agriculture may be a defensible proposal.
Conclusion
We concluded with an informal drink. Everyone applauded when Paul Heggarty proposed a toast to William Jones, the founder of Indo-European linguistics. Note that Jones worked as a judge in Kolkata at the time, in the far corner of the Indo-European expansion zone, east even of a putative Indian homeland in the western Ganga basin. In India, many know of his depiction on a frieze displayed in Oxford Chapel, where he is seen taking notes while being fed information by native informers. Without the tradition of Sanskrit learning, his scholarship might not have been that rich, and he might have missed his breakthrough to the recognition of a kinship between the languages now known as Indo-European.
Unlike at most conferences I have attended,
all the papers read here were interesting to most participants, and certainly
to me. They came not only to rattle off their own findings, but to listen and
learn. In spite of what I hear in India, where comparative-historical
linguistics is lambasted as a “pseudo-science” dealing in “ghost languages”,
this discipline is really making progress.
Except for myself, everyone present seemed
to believe the Russian (or at any rate a non-Indian) homeland theory. Yet some
of their findings strengthened the case for an Indian homeland.
9 comments:
"Except for myself, everyone present seemed to believe the Russian (or at any rate a non-Indian) homeland theory. Yet some of their findings strengthened the case for an Indian homeland."
There are very good reasons for ignoring an Indian homeland theory. For some reason, you continue to ignore genetic studies...probably because they refute your revisionist position:
http://blogs.discovermagazine.com/gnxp/2013/08/indo-aryans-dravidians-and-waves-of-admixture-migration/
The highlight of the article I posted:
"What these results imply is that there was admixture between very distinct populations in the period between 0 and 2000 B.C."
http://blogs.discovermagazine.com/gnxp/2013/08/indo-aryans-dravidians-and-waves-of-admixture-migration/
I'll read your post eventually, but I can already give the reply that all genetic (and archaeological) studies deserves: genes don't talk, just as artifacts don't talk. Material or genetic trails can prove that a migration or invasion took place, but not what linguistic scenario followed the invasion. Sometimes invaders impose their language, in other cases they adopt the local language, and in many more case one of the in-between scenarios apply. That is why the evidence for this linguistic theory will ultimately have to be linguistic. Non-linguists all the time *assume* that this group or that spoke a particular language, but they don't know that, e.g. Elena Kuzmina in her hefty and very detailed book about the Andronovo culture, which she gave the title "Genesis of the Indo-Iranians", or the genetic paper of Bamshad et al., which *assumes* the AIT yet at the end claims it has *proven* the AIT -- not coincidentally a paper quoted ad nauseam by OIT negationists.
By the way "ignoring a theory" is an anti-scientific attitude.
@Newf Kewsfs - I wonder if you have read The American Journal of Human Genetics paper? Here, I quote from page 430, first column, last paragraph under Fair Use principles,
Quote: "Although we have documented evidence for mixture in India between about 1,900 and 4,200 years BP, this does not imply migration from West Eurasia into India during this time. On the contrary, a recent study that searched for West Eurasian groups most closely related to the ANI ancestors of Indians failed to find any evidence for shared ancestry between the ANI and groups in West Eurasia within the past 12,500 years (although it is possible that with further sampling and new methods such relatedness might be detected)."
That Razib Khan's blog in Discover Magazine website is silly, because it misinterprets that Moorjani et al paper. It claims that castes may be 4000 years old, when Moorjani et al. paper finds the exact opposite. They suggest that caste system probably formed centuries after Rig Veda was finished (pp 429-431), and that ANI-ASI admixing was 'pervasive' in India in Vedic period. Endogamy, according to their genetic pool study, may be of recent origin. Like trained scientists, they keep cautioning that their results are tentative and subject to revision. Mr. or Ms. Razib Khan interprets the article with carelessness and a seeming bias.
Don't get me wrong on AIT and OIT. I remain curious, and unconvinced of either side. Genome studies complicate the picture for both sides, are easy to misinterpret or suffer from experimenter's bias and prejudices.
American,
You're missing the point of the study. The issue isn't whether West Eurasians have contributed to ANI genetically within the past 12,500 years. It's the fact that that ANI and ASI are two very distinct populations and the admixture took place between 0 and 2000 BC. It seems as if the decline of the IVC had something to do with this as populations spread further into the Gangetic plain. My feeling is that the imposition of the caste system took place when these admixture events started happening.
Read the rest of the paragraph you cited. The authors speculate that the situation might have been analogous to the situation in Europe between Neolithic farmers and hunter-gatherers.
The point being that there were probably two very culturally and genetically distinct populations in the Afghanistan/Pakistan area for a long period of time.
@Newf Kewsfs - You are not making any sense. I suggest you read Koenraad Elst's post again and the Moorjani et al paper. Ignore the silly biased blog by Mr. or Ms. Razib Khan.
KE is discussing OIT and AIT in his post. The relevant finding on AIT and OIT in Moorjani paper is, "this does not imply migration from West Eurasia into India during this time."
@Folks interested in interpreting genome data and studies on sociology and anthropology, may wish to consider caution. Because:
1. Human history is full of massive disease outbreaks wiping out regional populations. Even in 1800s and pre-1950 India, millions of people died from plague and other diseases. This means near extinction of regional gene pools, and over representation of surviving gene pools in modern populations. One consequence of this is the so-called Founder Effect.
2. Violence from Central Asian and Islamic invasions reduced or wiped out some regional Northwestern populations in India. Genome studies cannot estimate the shift such events would have caused.
3. Migrations could have been bidirectional. That is, both OIT and AIT could have happened, at different times.
4. There is evidence that migrations also happened from India's eastern borders.
5. Pay attention to average life per generation that is 'assumed' by genome researchers. The conclusions on admixing and speculations about caste system depend on this assumption. In Moorjani et al paper, they assume the average life of Indian people to be 29 years per generation. Is this accurate - why? If they assumed 42 years, their conclusions would be different.
Now imagine if your life expectancy was just 29 years; at what age and whom are you likely to marry? Would you be walking 100s or 1000s of kilometers, far and wide to date, screen partners, admix? It is unclear if what happened in historic India, or in Europe, before modern history, was driven by enforced endogamy, or simply naturally default endogamy. Genome studies offer data that fit both theories and others. Speculation can be interesting, but pretensive and foolish too.
May i add my views. Let us make a comparison between Russian and Sanskrit. If the male name is Mikhail GorbacheV , the female name is Elena GorbacheVAA, very much like KrishN being the male name and krishNAA being the female name in sanskrit. Anyone who has tried his/her hand in Sanskrit would vouch for the fact that it is a very complicated language, due to which it is spoken very little by the general public in india. When i attended a course on German, my first reaction was : “ OMG ! this is deliberate complication of English”. Considering the fact that English speaking Americans and British have shaped the political history of modern world, I would still be partially right when i say that English has become the lingua franca simply because it has adopted words from all languages and simplified them too.
Now, how should we interpret the Russian and Sanskrit names? Should we say that the Russians who migrated to india were overawed by the complicated language spoken by the natives and then they went on to complicate it further to create Sanskrit? Or, should we interpret that Indians who migrated to Russia found the natives struggling to adapt to the complicated Sanskrit words and hence they ditched all the complicated ones to create a simpler Russian language while retaining the naming style for male and females? Logically , possibility of the latter is high.
KE is right when he says archaeology and genetics cannot conclusively prove migration patterns. The dead tell no tales. Whereas language can throw valuable hints. Same is the case with south indian languages. South indian natives readily adopted Sanskrit grammar brought to them by the migrating braahmanical communities. Tamilians adopted a little by mainly rejecting the aspirated syllables of Sanskrit which puts a premium on lung power. This was sufficient to put anti-braahmanical tamil chauvinists on war path, who are burning midnight oil to prove that it was tamils who ruled asia starting with the Sumerian civilisation down to the Indus valley civilisation, before the vile barbaric braahmans from Europe slaughtered the tamils and relegated them to southern most corner of india. According to these jokers, whatever is spoken all over asia is tamil mixed with Sanskrit !!
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