tag:blogger.com,1999:blog-6138082354348831474.post166156153261057416..comments2024-03-21T00:42:18.535-07:00Comments on Koenraad Elst: AIT and the science of linguisticsKoenraad Elsthttp://www.blogger.com/profile/02503713923882807510noreply@blogger.comBlogger1125tag:blogger.com,1999:blog-6138082354348831474.post-11917098233050816932020-08-10T06:18:32.310-07:002020-08-10T06:18:32.310-07:00I recently read an interview with David Reich and ...I recently read an interview with David Reich and he was saying that the presence of steppe dna in India was originally female mediated in some of the ivc adjacent cultures, and that the dominance of paternal DNA was from preference for the male offspring of these initial contacts.<br /><br />Of course there is no evidence of any material change in India, and it was female mediated, so, why would the Indo European language have been adopted in these circumstances? Is there any other example of this happening elsewhere?seekerhttps://www.blogger.com/profile/17897428601137669520noreply@blogger.com